Discussion about this post

User's avatar
Stephanie Golphin's avatar

In my opinion, after our discussion about incitement, I failt o see how the comments Trump made on January 6 would not fall under incitement. I can understand the points raised by other classmates that Trump's tweets and language is known to be inflammatory and may lessen the inciteful impact of his language on January 6. But his comments of "fight like hell" and urging protestors to march to the Capitol to "stop the steal" seem to satisfy both the intent and imminent requirements of the Brandenburg test for incitement. The speech directed the protestors to march to the capitol and fight—an unlawful action. The speech was also directed to an ongoing event—the certification of votes to make Joe Biden the next president. It's unclear to me how his language was not incitement. And I think when viewed in light of his tweets right after the 2024 election and right before January 6, in which he repeatedly declared the election as rigged and fraudulent, thus riling up his fans who were then present in D.C. on January 6th, it is even clearer that his language was emant to incite the protestors.

Expand full comment
Noah Niemeyer's avatar

This post had me thinking about how the court balances speech in which the speaker / speech uses inflamatory language, but also uses other statements / contains evidence that can show a watering down of that inflamatory language. I read the full speech for the first time after reading your article, and in the speech Trump made that day, he said: "everyone here will soon be marching over to the Capitol building to peacefully and patriotically make your voices heard.” Additionally, he used the word "fight" as a figure of speech many times before uttering the phrase: "And we fight. We fight like Hell and if you don’t fight like Hell, you’re not going to have a country any more."

It feels like the statement calling for peaceful patriotism, and the "fight like hell" phrase, should almost cancel eachother out. Because the other instances of "fight" feel almost certainly to me like figures of speech, and I had trouble inferring any other objectively inflamatory language that could definitively be found to directly incite, or produce imminent lawless action, I just feel like the speech didn't meet the test under Brandenburg, especially after Clairborne and Hess.

It also makes me wonder if there is something to the idea that maybe we should look at the event in context. If you wanted to make the argument Trump incited those people on Jan. 6th, maybe it would be more appropriate to consider how riled up the listeners were even before the speech occurred. But something feels wrong about placing blame on the speaker for the emotion and actions / reactions of the listeners.

Expand full comment
4 more comments...

No posts